UGC NTA NET Paper 1 Previous Question Paper - 3rd December 2019 Afternoon Shift

 


1. For encouraging 'learning to learn', the emphasis on which of the following would be most appropriate?

(A) Use of educational technology gadgets

(B) Organizing teaching to increase opportunity for transfer of learning

(C) Assigning tasks to be mastered by students

(D) Frequent tests to be conducted

Answer.A

2. Which of the following is a key to effective teaching behaviour?

(A) Teacher mediated dialogue which helps learners restructure what is being learned

(B) Elicting clarification of an answer given by students

(C) Soliciting additional information about a response of students

(D) Promoting low error rate (high success) contributive to increased levels of students' self esteem and positive attitude

Answer.D

3. Which of the following sequence depicts outcome based curriculum design for college level teaching programmes?

(A) Content, teaching-learning, learning outcomes, evaluation

(B) Desired learning outcomes, content, teaching-learning, assessment and evaluation

(C) Teaching-learning, content, learning outcomes, assessment and evaluation

(D) Content, learning outcomes desired, teaching-learning, evaluation and assessment

Answer.B

4. Identify those features of learner behavior which are associated with understanding level teaching :

(i) The student renders facts and information in his/her own words

(ii) The student immediately recalls the facts taught

(iii) The student gives his / her own examples in order to explain a point

(iv) The student interprets the meanings in various ways

(v) The student correctly reproduces the sequence taught

Select your answer from the following options :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)                              (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iv) and (v)                             (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer.D

5. In which of the following modes of assessment the potential for increasing intrinsic motivation is optimum?

(A) Formative assessment based evaluation

(B) Computer testing based assessment

(C) Summative assessment

(D) Norm-referenced based testing assessment

Answer.A

6. The probability sampling procedures are mostly used in which of the following researches?

(i) Survey researches

(ii) Experimental researches

(iii) Phenomenology based researches

(iv) Action researches

(v) Correlational design based researches

Select your answer from the following options:

(A) (i), (ii) and (v)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (iii), (iv) and (v)

Answer.A

7. In which of the following research methods. An empirico-inductive paradigm is employed?

(i) Ethnographic probe

(ii) Case study method

(iii) Ex post facto method

(iv) Narrative method

(v) Experimental method

Select your answer from the options given below :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (iii), (iv) and (v)

Answer.C

 

8. The style of writing a thesis and research article has to be

(A) Creative in so far as diction is concerned

(B) Scientific in respect of language used

(C) Mechanical in so far as placement of figures and tables is concerned

(D) Variable in respect of referencing

Answer.B

9. A researcher while reporting his /her research findings gives weightage to stake holder's perspective in a qualitative research theme. This will involve

(A) Violation of ethical norms

(B) Bias and prejudices

(C) Disclosure of reality situation

(D) Inappropriate interference of others in research

Answer.C

10. In the linear model of communication, the expected result is

(A) Psychological disruption

(B) Removal of physical noise

(C) High level of obstruction

(D) Semantic accuracy

Answer.D

11. Given below are two statements - one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The spoken and written words are two media of many available for communication in the classroom.

Reason (R): Communication through any medium does not happen through attitudes of encoders

In the light of the above two statements choose the correct option from the choices given below:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer.C

 

12. The concept of proximal development, related to educational communication, was developed by

(A) Sigmund Freud

(B) Kurt Lewin

(C) Lev Vygotsky

(D) Albert Bandura

Answer.C

 

13. An important element in classroom communication is

(A) Physical infrastructure

(B) Fields of experience

(C) Conditioned feedback

(D) Linearity of Message

Answer.B

14. Effective oral communication demands

(i) Self-confidence

(ii) Long pauses

(iii) Consistent practice

(iv) Businesslike approach

(v) Knowing the audience

(vi) Aggressive questioning

Choose the correct answer from the following option:

(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(C) (iv), (v) and (vi)

(D) (i), (iii) and (v)

Answer.D

15. The application of which of the following ICT in research will ensure wider coverage and accessibility of needed information?

(A) LAN                                  (B) WAN

(C) Skype                                (D) Intranet

Answer.B

16. International Computer Security Day is observed on

(A) 18thJuly                             (B) 30th November

(C) 2nd December                  (D) 23rd December

Answer.B

17. VDU stands for

(A) Virtual Display Unit

(B) Virtual Detection Unit

(C) Visual Display Unit

(D) Visual Detection Unit

Answer.C

18. Which of the following storage devices stores maximum amount of data?

(A) Compact disc

(B) Floppy disc

(C) Hard disc

(D) Magnetic optic disc

Answer.C

19. _________ Represents raw facts, whereas is processed meaningful data.

(A) Information, Bits

(B) Records, Bytes

(C) Data, Information

(D) Information, Reporting

Answer.C

20. Which of the following is a computer-based system that stores and manipulates data which are viewed from a geographical point or reference?

(A) Database System

(B) Geographical Information System

(C) Geographic System

(D) Software System

Answer.B

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follows:

Under the labour theory of value, the value or price of a commodity depends exclusively on the amount of labour going into the production of the commodity. This implies that either labour is the only factor of production or labour is used in the same fixed proportion in the production of all commodities and that labour is homogeneous, i.e. of only one type. Since neither of these assumptions is true, we cannot base the explanation of comparative advantage on the labour theory of values specifically, labour is not the only factor of production, nor is it used in the same fixed proportion in the production of all commodities. For example, much more capital equipment per worker is required to produce some products, such as steel than to produce other products such as textile. In addition, there is usually some possibility of substitution between labour, capital and other factors in the production of most commodities. Furthermore, labour is obviously homogeneous but varies greatly in training, productivity and wages. At the very least, we should allow for different productivities of labour. Indeed this is how the Ricardian theory of comparative advantage has been tested empirically. In any event, the theory of comparative advantage need not be based on the labour theory of value but can be explained on the basis of the opportunity cost theory which is acceptable. To be noted is that Ricardo himself did not belive in the labour theory of value and used it only as a simple way to explain the law of comparative advantage. The law of comparative advantage is sometimes referred to as the law of comparative cost.

 

21. Products like steel need

(A) less workers

(B) more workers

(C) more machines

(D) less machines

Answer.C

22. In the Labour Theory of Value, when it comes to production of commodities, engagement of labour is

(A) heterogeneous

(B) in fixed proportion

(C) in varied proportion

(D) capital intensive

Answer.B

23. What does the Labour Theory of Value implies?

(A) Labour is an extra factor in production

(B) Labour has a limited role in production

(C) Labour has the highest value in production

(D) Commodity price and labour value are directly related

Answer.D

 

24. According to the author of the passage

(i) labour is the basis of commodity pricing

(ii) labour can be substituted with capital

(iii) less capital equipment per worker is required for products like textile

(iv) opportunity cost can help explain comparative advantage

(v) Ricardo used the labour theory of value only to explain comparative cost

(vi) Ricardo was not sure of his own theory

Choose the correct option :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (iv), (v) and (vi)

(D) (iii), (iv) and (v)

Answer.D

25. The Ricardian Theory is examined on the basis of

(A) Labour value

(B) Homogeneity of labour

(C) Different levels of labour productivity

(D) Law of possibility

Answer.C

26. The next term of the series

1D3, 3H5, 5L7, ___

(A) 7 P 9                     (B) 7 R 9

(C) 7 N 9                     (D) 7 L 9

Answer.A

27. In a certain code "CREDIT" is written as "EPGBKR" and in the same code. 'DEBIT" will be written as

(A) FDCGV                 (B) FGCDV

(C) FCDGV                  (D) FCDVG

Answer.C

28) Average of two numbers a and b is 22 and 60% of a = 60% of b. What is the product of a and b?

(A) 160                       (B) 384

(C) 480                        (D) 484

Answer.D

29. B is the only daughter of maternal grandmother of A. How is A related to B?

(A) Sister                                (B) Daughter

(C) Cousin                              (D) Mother

Answer.B

30. If A is directly proportional to B; B is inversely proportional to C and C is directly proportional to D, then

(i) A is inversely proportional to D

(ii) A is directly proportional to D

(iii) A is directly proportional to C

(iv) A is inversely proportional to C

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (i) and (iv)

(B) (ii) only

(C) (i) only

(D) (iii) and (iv)

Answer.A

31. The attributes shared by all and only those objects to which a term refers is known as

(i) The intention of a term

(ii) Connotation

(iii) Denotation

(iv) The extension of a term

Choose the correct code from below:

(A) (iv) only

(B) Both (i) and (ii)

(C) Both (iii) and (iv)

(D) (iii) only

Answer.B

32. Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them. Which of the following is valid conclusion drawn from the premises?

Premises :

(i) All diaries are copies

(ii) No copy is book

Conclusions :

(i) Some diaries are books

(ii) Some books are copies

(iii) No book is copy

(iv) No diary is book

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i) and (iv)

Answer.B

 

33. An informed fallacy in which the conclusion of an argument is stated or assumed in any one of the premises is known as:

(i) Begging the question

(ii) Circular argument

(iii) Ignoratioelenchi

(iv) Petitioprincipii

Choose the correct option from the following:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(C) (iii) only

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer.A

34. According to traditional square of opposition if two propositions are so related that they cannot both be false, although they may both be true is called:

(A) Sub altern                        (B) Sub contraries

(C) Contradictory                  (D) Contrary

Answer.B

35. Which of the following is not correct with reference to anumana according to classical Indian school of logic?

(A) Linga/Sadhana is the middle term

(B) Paksa is the minor term

(C) Sadhya is the major term

(D) Hetu is the minor term

Answer.D

Data Interpretation

Consider the table given below for total exports of 6 countries over 5 years (in crores of rupees) and answer the question 36 to 40

Assume: profit = export – import

36. If the ratio of export to import in country F and country D are 4 : 1 and 1 : 2 respectively in the year 2008, then what is the total import of country F and D together in that particular year? (In mores of rupees)

(A) 44                                      (B) 65

(C) 92                                      (D) 96

Answer.D

37. What is the percentage increase in the export of all the countries together from the year 2009 to 2011?

(A) 35 8/9 %

(B) 38 8/9%

(C) 40 8/9%

(D) 38 7/8

Answer.B

38) By what precent is the average export of country E over all the given years more than the average export of country C over all the years?

(A) 13 7/11%

(B) 14 7/11%

(C) 13 5/7%

(D) 14 5/7%

Answer.A

39. If the export of country A in the year 2013 is 20% more than the total export of country B in 2011 and the export of country E in 2010 together, then what was the profit of A in the year 2013 if its import was Rupees 92 crore for that year? (In crores of rupees)

(A) 10                                      (B) 22

(C) 34                                      (D) 46

Answer.C

40. What was the profit of all the countries together in the year 2012 if the total imports of all the countries together was rupees 385 crore?

(A) Rupees 510 crore                                   (B) Rupees 280 crore

(C) Rupees 160 crore                                    (D) Rupees 125 crore

Answer.C

41. Under Kyoto Protocol, the first committment period for reduction of greenhouse gas emissions by 97 industrialized and European community countries was :

(A) 1997 — 2005                              (B) 2000 — 2012

(C) 2008 - 2012                                 (D) 2005 — 2015

Answer.C

42. The potential of geothermal power in India is approximately

(A) 10 GW                              (B) 5 GW

(C) 20 GW                              (D) 25 GW

Answer.A

43. Exposure to noise pollultion can cause

(i) Weakening of immune system

(ii) Sleeplessness

(iii) Speech interference

(iv) Increase in blood pressure

(v) Shift in threshold of hearing

(vi) Respiratory problems

Choose the correct option from those given below :

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)

(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer.B

 

44. Given below are two statements - one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (II).

Assertion (A): The impact of natural disasters does not depend on socioeconomic factors.

Reason (R): Natural disasters do not discriminate between people of a society and other communities.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer.D

45. Which of the following air pollutants are produced from room deodorizers?

(A) Inhalable particulate matter                             (B) Carbon monoxide

(C) Ozone                                                                  (D) Volatile organic compounds

Answer.D

46. An institution desirous of applying for deemed to be university status must have been in existence for at least

(A) 5 Years                                         (B) 10 Years

(C) 20 Years                                       (D) 25 Years

Answer.C

47) The community colleges have provisions for

(A) Single admission                        (B) Concurrent admission

(C) Self-financing system                (D) Teaching at home

 Answer.B

48. Given below are the statements-one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A): Considering higher education as a non-priority for the state is linked to the withdrawal of public funding to it.

Reason (R): The pressure of free enterprise system in this regard is an attempt to expand their educational market.

In the light of above two statements, choose the correction option:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (11) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer.A

49. The objective of Indian Government behind setting up of HEFA (Higher Education Finance Agency) is to provide financial support for:

(A) Improvement of infra structure in premier institutions of the country

(B) Research projects of faculty

(C) Research collaboration between Indian and Foreign Universities

(D) Research collaboration between Indian Institutions and Industry

 Answer.A

50. The WTO negotiation on higher education deals with issues like :

(i) Education as a free service

(ii) Vigorous social affirmation in developed countries

(iii) Assigning important role for civil society

(iv) Education as a trade

(v) Education as a commodity

(vi) Withdrawal of public sector from higher education

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (v)

(D) (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer.D

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Answer Key (1-50)

1

A

6

A

11

C

16

B

21

C

26

A

31

B

36

D

41

C

46

C

2

D

7

C

12

C

17

C

22

B

27

C

32

B

37

B

42

A

47

B

3

B

8

B

13

B

18

C

23

D

28

D

33

A

38

A

43

B

48

A

4

D

9

C

14

D

19

C

24

D

29

B

34

B

39

C

44

D

49

A

5

A

10

D

15

B

20

B

25

C

30

A

35

D

40

D

45

D

50

D

 

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