1. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation.
2. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.
3. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.
4. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?
5. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask
(A) meaning full questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time
6. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.
7. A hypothesis is a
8. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you follow?
(A) Area Sampling
(B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
9. Controlled group condition is applied in
(A) Survey Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research
(D) Descriptive Research
10. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures
(B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories
(D) hands on training/experience
11. Which one of the following is a research tool?
12. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.
13. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by
14. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation?
15. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is
(A) 4 : 3
(B) 3: 4
(C) 2: 3
(D) 2: 4
16. Communication with oneself is known as
(A) Organisational Communication
(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication
(D) Intrapersonal Communication
17. The term ‘SITE’ stands for
(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education
18. Photo bleeding means
(A) Photo cropping
(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting
(D) Photo colour adjustment
19. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones?
(A) Windows Vista
(C) Windows XP
(D) All of the above
20. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following?
(C) Mat lab
21. HTML is used to create
(A) machine language program
(B) high level program
(C) web page
(D) web server
22. The term DNS stands for
(A) Domain Name System
(B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software
(D) Dependent Name Server
23. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
24. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all ?
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.
25. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(C) Spiritual devaluation
(D) Inordinate development
26. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is
(B) What ought to be
(C) What can be
(D) Where it is
27. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life
(D) Enlightened rationalism
28. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
29. The contents of the passage are
30. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance
(D) humans are irresponsible
31. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ___
32. Find the next letter for the series
33. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code ?
34. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by
(A) 60 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 196 %
(D) 96 %
35. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways in which hall can be illuminated is
(D) 10 !
36. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
37. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30
(B) at most 20
(C) exactly 25
(D) exactly 5
38. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:
(A) Definite descriptions
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Common names
39. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
40. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is
41. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false, then which of the following inferences is correct? Choose from the codes given below:
1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
3. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
42. Determine the nature of the following definition: ‘Poor’ means having an annual income of Rs. 10,000.
43. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.
44. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
45. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may
(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion without entailing it
46. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from the codes given below.
1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.
2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4 alone
(D) 3 and 4
47. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values
48. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
49. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
50. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(Commissions and Committees)
List – II
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I
(c) K. Santhanam Committee
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
51. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments
52. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given below, the percentage contribution to CO2 emissions from various sectors is indicated.
53. What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector?
(A) 1.5 mmt
(B) 2.5 mmt
(C) 1.75 mmt
(D) 0.75 mmt
54. What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal power and transport sectors?
(A) 3.25 mmt
(B) 1.5 mmt
(C) 2.5 mmt
(D) 4 mmt
55. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide
56. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
57. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?
(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy
(D) Tidal energy
58. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Hydropower plants
59. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(C) Flash floods
(D) Nuclear accident
60. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
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